June 28, 2018, 6:32pm #22. If yes then 1/x is an actual infinity. We can only go back as far as time allows us to go in our known universe. Sometimes it is uncontroversial that a theory that generates aninfinite regress is objectionable, because the regress reveals thatthe theory suffers from some kind of theoretical vice that is a reasonto reject the theory independently of it yielding an infiniteregress. But there is no otherwise. Dr. Craig, I cannot thank you enough for your apologetics work. … infinity is an irrational term when appled to a finite universe. I don’t agree with this part either. But that is impossible. It basically means that any infinitely recurring causality for any event is impossible, since one never actually arrives at a cause. The regress is finite, but has no end (Coherence view). Infinite regression suggests that the dominoes fell on their own, which is impossible. Infinity simply doesn’t exist for a finite universe. Beyond that, the causal chain could loop back on itself or do all kinds of wonky stuff, too. Infinity simply doesn’t exist for a finite universe. Following some unpublished work of Gregory O'Hair, David Armstrong identifies and diagrams several possible ways to escape the Skeptic's infinite regress, including: Skepticism - knowledge is impossible. You are just proving that infinity cannot be reached which this is different from that infinity does not exist. Well our known universe had a definite start time. In philosophy, the infinite regression phenomenon frequently … Gorgias June 28, 2018, 5:01pm To argue for an infinite regress of events, you are by definition arguing for an an actually infinite number of a finite amount. This we call "God". Several versions of the Cosmological Argument (Motion and Causality) make it one of their premises that infinite regress is impossible. The end time is still a great unknown. Philosophy. God then isn't an exception to the impossibility of an infinite regress rule (which would itself be impossible), but stands in a qualitatively different relationship to time altogether (one which doesn't require the passing of time at all). Is it because according to quantum mechanics things at the subatomic world do not have causes? I'm hoping this version of the question will be more clear and easier to respond to. Is the Passage of Time Real or Just an Illusion? There is not an amount, quantity, or number of things, that can add up to an infinite because an infinite is quantitatively indefinable. Can you conceive of an infinite series stretching back in time or forward to the future? 1 … Logically speaking, at no point does an infinite regress justify any proposition. What is his argument? When St Thomas dismissed an infinite regress of causes, he did so, not because he thought there could never be an actual infinity of ‘things’ or ‘events’ (he was much smarter than that); he dismissed it on account of the fact that an infinite series of things, events, causes, or whatever, cannot explain something existing currently. But if the series were literally infinite, there ... 4 The infinite regress argument will not, however, work for Humean causes. Theism I've read in defense of the second premise of most cosmological arguments that in an essentially ordered series infinite regress is impossible because if it did then there would be no first cause and therefore no source of causal power. Aristotle argued that knowing does not necessitate an infinite regress because some knowledge does not depend on demonstration: Some hold that owing to the necessity of knowing the primary premises, there is no scientific knowledge. The Flatlander’s Argument Against Miracles. 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